General Science Question and Answer
- Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal
- Forest Research Institute, Dehradun
- Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun
Q) Medha Patkar is related to which movement? (A) Chipko Movement (B) Narmada Bachao Andolan (C) Naxalite Movement (D) Harm to agricultural land
Q) Which of the following is the main component of natural gas? (A) Ethane (B) Butane (C) Carbon mono-oxide (D) Methane
Q) The Indian Institute of Ecology and Environment is located at – (A) New Delhi (B) Mumbai (C) Kolkata (D) Thiruvananthapuram
Q) When a ray of light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium then – (A) It speeds up and bends away from the normal (B) It speeds up and bends towards the normal (C) It slows down and bends away from the normal (D) It slows down and bends towards the normal
Q) The time taken to reach the sunlight up to the surface of Earth is approximately – (A) 4.2 sec (B) 4.8 sec (C) 8.5 minutes (D) 3.6 hrs
Q) The speed of light will be minimum while passing through – (A) Glass (B) Vacuum (C) Water (D) Air
Q) Which Indian scientist is recognised by ‘UNEP’ as Father of Economic Ecology? (A) B.P. Pal (B) Yash Pal (C) M.S. Swaminathan (D) R. Mishra
Q) Human eye is most sensitive to visible light of the wavelength: (A) 6050 Å (B) 5500 Å (C) 4500 Å (D) 7500 Å
Q) Among the colours mentioned below, the eye is most sensitive to colours between: (A) Red and green (B) Orange and yellow (C) Green and blue (D) Yellow and green
Q) The most important indoor air pollutant is – (A) Sulpher Dioxide (B) Carbon Dioxide (C) Nitrogen Dioxide (D) Radon gas
Q) Cigarette smoke contains – (A) Carbon monoxide dioxycine (B) Carbon monoxide and nicotine (C) Carbon monoxide and Benzene (D) Dioxycine and Benzene
Q) ‘Ringelmann scale’ is used to measure density of – (A) Smoke (B) Polluted water (C) Fog (D) Noise
Q) In which year was ‘The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act’ enacted? (A) 1980 (B) 1974 (C) 1981 (D) 1986
Q) In which of the following creatures is haemoglobin dissolved in the plasma? (a) Frog (b) Fish (c) Human (d) Earthworm
Q) What is the basic feature of an antigen? (A) It induces formation of haemoglobin (B) It induces formation of antibodies (C) It destroys insulin (D) It acts against the antibodies
Q) The arteries supplying blood to the heart are called – (a) Carotid arteries (b) Hepatic arteries (c) Coronary arteries (d) Pulmonary arteries
Q) How many pairs of nerves arise from the spinal cord? (a) 13 (b) 31 (c) 33 (d) 12
Q) Which of the following glands in the human body acts both as an endocrine and exocrine gland? (A) Adrenal gland (B) Lacrimal gland (C) Pancreas (D) Thyroid
Q) Which of the following hormones play a role in release of milk from mammary glands? (A) Andrenaline (B) Thyroxine (C) Progesterone (D) Oxytocin
Q) Which one of the following is a female sex hormone? (A) Androsterone (B) Testosterone (C) Estrone (D) Thyroxine
Q) The main factor of evolution is – (A) Mutation (B) Achieved quality (C) Sexual reproduction (D) Natural selection
- Water Pollution act, 1974
- Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
- Air Pollution Act, 1981
- Environment Protection Act, 1986
Q) India’s first National Action Plan on Climate Change was released in: (A) 2008 A.D. (B) 2012 A.D. (C) 2014 A.D. (D) 2015 A.D.
Q) Which one of the following naturally occurring greenhouse gases causes the highest percentage of the greenhouse effect? (A) Carbon Dioxide (B) Methane (C) Ozone (D) Water Vapour
Greenhouse Gases – carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), nitrous oxide (N₂O), chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆).
- Cartagena Protocol (Biosafety) – 2000
- Stockholm Convention (Persistent Organic Pollutants) – 2001
- Montreal Protocol (Ozone Layer) – 1987
- Kyoto Protocol (Climate Change) – 1997 (Carbon Credit)
Q) Among the mathematical indices for measuring biodiversity, which one shows the mean species diversity in a habitat at a local scale? (A) Alpha index (B) Beta index (C) Gamma index (D) None of these
Q) Biosphere reserves are areas for conservation of- (A) Grasslands (B) Agriculture production (C) Atmospheric balance (D) Genetic Variation
Q) Cartagena protocol is related to: (A) Bio-safety agreement (B) Pollution (C) Ozone depletion (D) Climate Change
Q) Which one of the following is an important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity? (A) Biosphere Reserves (B) Botanical Gardens (C) National Parks (D) Wild Life Sanctuaries
⇒ India has four bio-diversity hot spots- Eastern Himalayas, Western Ghats, Indo-Myanmar border and Sundaland.
Q) Which one of the following is the correct order of biological organization ranging from organism to biosphere? (A) Population–Ecosystem–Community–Landscape (B) Landscape–Community–Ecosystem–Population (C) Population–Community–Ecosystem–Landscape (D) Population–Landscape–Community–Ecosystem
Q) The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a particular area is called: (A) Ecological succession (B) Sere (C) Community dynamics (D) Pyramid of biomass
Q) The measurement unit of the ecological footprint is – (A) Global hectares (B) Nanometer (C) Hoppus cubic foot (D) Cubic ton
The minimum area of the land required to completely sustain the life of the person is called his ecological footprint.
Q) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity? (A) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves (B) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes (C) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans (D) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Q) In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle? (A) Carbon cycle (B) Nitrogen cycle (C) Phosphorus cycle (D) Sulphur cycle
Q) Which of the following is an example of anthropogenic biome? (A) Fresh water (B) Grassland (C) Rain forest (D) Cropland
Q) The example of “Lentic Habitat” in the freshwater community is: (A) Ponds and swamps (B) Waterfalls and rivers (C) Ponds and rivers (D) All the above
Q) An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which ecosystem? (A) Marine (B) Grassland (C) Forest (D) Tundra
Q) The highest trophic level in an ecosystem is obtained by: (A) Herbivores (B) Carnivores (C) Omnivores (D) Decomposers
Q) Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism but also its functional role in the community of organisms? (A) Ecotone (B) Ecological niche (C) Habitat (D) Home range
Q) The actual location or place where an organism lives is called: (A) Habitat (B) Ecosystem (C) Niche (D) Biome
Q) Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’? (A) A community of organisms interacting with one another. (B) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms. (C) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live. (D) Flora and fauna of a geographical area.
⇒ The four main components of ecosystem : abiotic substances, producers, consumers, and decomposers.
Q) The term Ecosystem was proposed by – (A) G. Tailor (B) E. Hartigan (C) D.R. Stoddart (D) Tansley
The investigator of Natural Farming was Masanobu Fukuoka
Q) Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because:
(A) The new soil does not contain favourable minerals (B) Most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard (C) Most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation (D) Leaves get damaged during transplantation
⇒ Agenda 21 को 1992 में संयुक्त राष्ट्र के पर्यावरण और विकास सम्मेलन (UNCED), जिसे रियो समिट या अर्थ समिट भी कहा जाता है, में अपनाया गया था।
Q) A converging lens has a focal length of 10 cm. If a virtual image is formed 20 cms away from the optical centre, how far away is the object placed from the optical centre of the lens? (A) 5.0 cms (B) 6.7 cms (C) 10 cms (D) 20 cms (E) 30 cms
Q) For a good solar cell, the Fill Factor (FF) should be (A) FF = 1 (B) FF = 0.1 (C) FF = 0.8 (D) FF = 10 (E) FF = 100
Q) On a glass plate a light wave is incident at an angle 60°. If the reflected and the refracted waves are mutually perpendicular, the refractive index of material is : (A) 1.3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) √3
Q) Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for : (A) Red (B) Green (C) Yellow (D) Violet
Q) What is the relation between horizontal intensity and vertical intensity of earth’s magnetic field at the point of earth at which angle of dip is 45 degree? (A) Vertical intensity is greater (B) Horizontal intensity is greater (C) Vertical intensity is less (D) Both intensities are equal
Q) An object placed in a rare medium is viewed from denser medium where it will appears? (A) At real distance (B) Nearer than its real distance (C) Far away than its real distance (D) Will not be observed
Q) One gets magnified image of an object whenever light suffers- (A) Refraction through water. (B) Refraction through glass surface. (C) Refraction through any curved surface. (D) Refraction through a specially designed curved surface.
- Magnetic Susceptibility : Ferromagnetic > Paramagnetic > Diamagnetic > Non-magnetic
Q) There are how many pairs of cranial nerves in human? (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 25 (D) 31
Q) When does heart rest? (A) Never (B) While sleeping (C) Between two beats (D) While doing yoga
Q) Which of the following foods will provide the nutrient for the growth of new tissues in the human body? (A) Fruit (B) Vegetables (C) Cheese (D) Sweets
Q) Consider the following statements about probiotic food:
- The probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans.
-
Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora.
correct option? (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q) With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements :
- In response to the presence of HCl, secretin is produced from the duodenum.
-
Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids.
correct option? (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q) Antacids are – (A) Base (B) Acid (C) Salt (D) Buffer
Q) The gas used in discharge tubes for optical decoration and advertising is – (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Ammonia (C) Sulphur dioxide (D) Neon
Noble Gases (Group 18) – Hi Neena, Are Krishan’s X-rays Really Okay?
He – Helium, Ne – Neon, Ar – Argon, Kr – Krypton, Xe – Xenon, Rn – Radon, Og – Oganesson (artificial)
Q) Which Noble Gases is not present in the air? (A) Helium (B) Argon (C) Radon (D) Neon
Q) The noble gas used in radiotherapy is: (A) Neon (B) Argon (C) Radon (D) Xenon
Q) Which one of the following catalysts is used in hydrogenation of vegetable oils? (A) Zinc (B) Platinum (C) Nickel (D) Iron
Q) An element X has four electrons in its outermost orbit. What will be the formula of its compounds with Hydrogen? (A) X4H (B) X4H4 (C) XH3 (D) XH4
Q) According to weight, the percentage of Hydrogen in water (H₂O), is – (A) 44.45% (B) 5.55% (C) 88.89% (D) 11.11%
Q) An example of physical change – (A) Blackening of silverware (B) Burning of Candle (C) Making of curd from milk (D) Dissolving of sugar in water
Q) Radioactivity was discovered by : (A) Rutherford (B) Becquerel (C) Bohr (D) Madam Curie
Q) The positively charged part at the centre of an atom is called as : (A) Proton (B) Neutron (C) Electron (D) Nucleus
Q) In an ecosystem, flow of energy declines as it passes from lower to higher trophic level. This is explained by the following : (A) First law of thermodynamics (B) Second law of thermodynamics (C) Newton’s second law (D) Newton’s third law
Q) The temperature point at which solid, liquid and gaseous states may stay together is known as : (A) boiling point (B) melting point (C) freezing point (D) triple point
Q) What is the critical angle? (A) angle of refraction of 180 degrees. (B) angle of incidence that produces an angle of refraction of 90 degrees. (C) light passes through a medium without any refraction. (D) produces an angle of incidence of 90 degrees.
- Intensity of light – Amplitude of light
- Colour of light – Frequency of light
- Velocity of light – Refractive index of the medium
- Propagation of light – Properties of the medium
- Diffraction of light – Path difference
Q) If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another on the potential surface, then- (A) Work will be done on charge (B) Work will be done by charge (C) Work done will be zero (D) The work done will be constant
Q) Which of the following compounds is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers? (A) Bleaching powder (B) Calcium chloride (C) Sodium bicarbonate (D) Sodium carbonate
Q) Which of the following substances can move across the cell membrane by diffusion? (A) Oxygen (B) Nucleic acid (C) Proteins (D) Starch
Q) When white light is incident on a glass prism, it undergoes dispersion. This phenomenon is due to (A) refractive index of the glass being different for different colours (B) interference of the light (C) diffraction of the light (D) refractive index of the glass being the same for different colours
Q) The magnetic susceptibility is negative for– (A) Paramagnetic substance only (B) Diamagnetic materials only (C) Ferromagnetic materials only (D) Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials both
Q) In case of formation of multiple images by way of multiple reflection and refraction in a thick glass slab, which image is the brightest? (A) First (B) Third (C) Fourth (D) Second
Q) The ______ regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye. (A) pupil (B) retina (C) cornea (D) iris
Q) In a simple microscope, the final image is: (A) Virtual, erect and magnified (B) Real, erect and magnified (C) Real, inverted and magnified (D) Virtual, inverted and magnified
Q) In the year 1997, the World Environment Conference was organised in? (A) Reo-de-Janeiro (B) Nairobi (C) Kyoto (D) New York
⇒ World Meteorological Organization (WMO) – Geneva, Switzerland.
⇒ United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP, 1972) – Nairobi, Kenya
Q) What is the thin layer of gases around the earth called? (A) Biosphere (B) Water particle (C) Atmosphere (D) Hydrosphere
⇒ The theme for World Environment Day 2025 is “Land Restoration, Desertification, and Drought Resilience”.
⇒ The ‘Common Carbon Metric’ supported by UNEP, has been developed for (A) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world.
Q) National Environmental Engineering Research Institute is situated at: (A) Bangaluru (B) Hyderabad (C) Nagpur (D) New Delhi
List of Environment Reposrts
- The Limits to Growth Report – 1972
- Environment (Protection) Act – 1986
- Brundtland Commission Report (Our Common Future) – 1987
- Montreal Protocol – 1989
- Rio Earth Summit – 1992
Q) While lifting a bucket of water from a well, what do we feel when the bucket comes out of water? (A) Becomes heavier above the surface of water (B) Becomes lighter above the surface of water (C) Loses stability on coming out of the water (D) Has gained mass on coming out of water
Q) A body floats at 4°C water. If the temperature reaches 100°C, then: (A) The body will sink (B) No change (C) More part of the body will submerge (D) The body will float freely
Q) When a ship enters a sea from a river, what happens? (A) It rises a little (B) It remains at the same level (C) It sinks a little (D) It immersed in the bottom of the sea
Q) A body-weight is highest in which among the following mediums? (A) Air (B) Water (C) Hydrogen (D) Nitrogen
Q) When pure water turns into ice at 4°C, what is the ratio of ice density compared to water? (A) 10/10 (B) 1/2 (C) 9/10 (D) 1/10
Q) What is the law in which under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules? (A) Coriolis effect (B) Graham’s law (C) Pascal’s law (D) Avogadro’s law
Q) The maximum density of water is at: (A) 373 Kelvin (B) 277 Kelvin (C) 273 Kelvin (D) 269 Kelvin
Q) Increasing the amount of a substance does not change its – (A) Volume (B) Weight (C) Mass (D) Density
Q) The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. Why? (A) Ice is a bad conductor of heat (B) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost (C) The density of water is maximum at 4°℃ (D) None of the above
Q) A sudden fall in barometer reading indicates that the weather will be : (A) Stormy weather (B) Rainy weather (C) Cool dry weather (D) Hot and humid weather
Q) Kerosene rises in the wick of the stove is due to – (A) Osmosis (B) Diffusion (C) Surface tension (D) Biogen contraction
Q) In a capillary tube a fluid rises more as compared to water, it is due to : (A) Fluid is more viscous than that of water (B) Temperature of fluid is more than that of water (C) Surface tension of fluid is less than that of water (D) Surface tension of fluid is more than that of water
Q) A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the Earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will – (A) Decrease in size (B) Flatten into disc-like shape (C) Increase in size (D) Maintain the same size and shape
Q) If two bubbles of soap of different diameter come in contact with a tube, then what will happen? (A) The size of both the bubbles will remain same (B) The smaller bubble will become smaller and bigger will become bigger (C) The smaller bubble will become larger and larger will become smaller to get the same size (D) Both bubbles will burst as soon as they come in contact
Q) Pressure inside a soap bubble is – (A) More than atmospheric pressure (B) Less than atmospheric pressure (C) Equal to atmospheric pressure (D) Half of atmospheric pressure
Q) Oil spreads on water surface because – (A) Oil is denser than water (B) Oil is less dense than water (C) Surface tension of oil is more than water (D) Surface tension of oil is less than water
Q) A pendulum clock can run faster in – (A) Summer (B) Winter (C) Spring season (D) Rainy season
Q) A girl is swinging on a swing in sitting position. When the girl stands up, the period of the swing will – (A) Be shorter (B) Be longer (C) Depends on the height of the girl (D) Not change
Q) The time period of a pendulum – (A) Depends on the mass (B) Depends on its length (C) Depends on time (D) Depends on temperature
Q) The Earth travels in its orbit at a speed of approx 4,400 km per hour. Why do we not feel this high speed? (A) Because we are too small compared to the size of the Earth (B) Our relative speed with respect to the Earth along the Earth’s orbit is zero (C) The solar system as a whole is also moving (D) The gravity of the Earth constantly pulls us towards the Earth’s centre
Q) A satellite is kept moving in its orbit around the Earth. It is due to – (A) Centrifugal force (B) Centripetal force (C) Gravitational force or lack of it (D) Some other forces
Q) If a person is sitting in a lift, then when will he feel that his weight gets increased? (A) When the elevator is going upward expeditiously (B) When the elevator is going down expeditiously (C) Going upward with constant velocity (D) Going downward with constant velocity
Q) A ball is dropped from the top of a high building with a constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s². What will be its velocity after 3 seconds? (A) 9.8 m/s (B) 19.6 m/s (C) 29.4 m/s (D) 39.2 m/s
Q) If the radius of the Earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the value of g on the Earth’s surface would – (A) Increase by 0.5% (B) Increase by 2% (C) Decrease by 0.5% (D) Decrease by 2%
Q) The acceleration due to gravity of a destructive earthquake will be – (A) > 550 cm/sec² (B) > 750 cm/sec² (C) > 950 cm/sec² (D) > 980 cm/sec²
Q) The mass of a body on the Earth is 100 kg (acceleration due to gravity, gₑ = 10 m/s²). If acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is (g/6), then the mass of the body on the Moon is – (A) 100/6 kg (B) 60 kg (C) 100 kg (D) 600 kg
Q) Weightlessness is – (A) Zero gravity (B) When gravity decreases (C) In vacuum (D) None of the above
Q) If the spinning speed of the Earth increases, then the weight of the body at the equator will – (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remain same (D) Be doubled
Q) If an object is falling from above, its weight remains – (A) Zero (B) Same (C) Change (D) None of the above
Q) Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the Moon would – (A) Have different accelerations (B) Undergo a change in their inertia (C) Have same velocity at any instant (D) Experience forces of same magnitude
Q) Who among the following anticipated Newton by declaring that all things gravitate to the earth? (A) Aryabhatta (B) Varahamihira (C) Buddhagupta (D) Brahmagupta
Q) If the distance between the Earth and the Sun were twice what it is now, the gravitational force exerted on the Earth by the Sun would be – (A) Twice as large as it is now (B) Four times as large as it is now (C) One fourth of what it is now (D) Half of what it is now
Q) How can the height of a person who is six feet tall, be expressed (approximately) in nanometre? (A) 183 × 10⁶ nm (B) 234 × 10⁶ nm (C) 183 × 10⁷ nm (D) 181 × 10⁷ nm
Q) Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The presence of NaCl increases the rate of setting of Plaster of Paris
(B) Gypsum is added to the cement to slow down its rate of setting
(C) All alkaline earth metals form hydrated salts
(D) Barium and Strontium are found free in nature
Q) Iodised salt contains : (A) Free iodine (B) Calcium iodide (C) Magnesium iodide (D) Potassium iodide
Q) Table salt (NaCl) is a product of – (A) Weak acid and weak base (B) Strong acid and strong base (C) Weak acid and strong base (D) Strong acid and weak base
Q) Quartz crystals used in clocks are : (A) Sodium silicate (B) Silicon dioxide (C) Germanium oxide (D) Titanium dioxide
Q) What is Blue vitriol (Neela thotha)? (A) Copper Sulphate (B) Calcium Sulphate (C) Iron Sulphate (D) Sodium Sulphate
Q27) The chemical used for destroying fungi in water tank is : (A) Nitric acid (B) Zinc sulphate (C) Magnesium sulphate (D) Copper Sulphate
Q) Monazite is an ore of – (A) Zirconium (B) Thorium (C) Titanium (D) Iron
Q) Mica is a : (A) Good conductor of heat and bad conductor of electricity (B) Bad conductor of both heat and electricity (C) Good conductor of heat and electricity both (D) Bad conductor of heat and good conductor of electricity
Q) In which of the following industries is mica used as a raw material – (A) Iron and steel (B) Toys (C) Glass and pottery (D) Electrical
Q) Among the following, which statement is incorrect about phosphorous? (A) Phosphorous is stored in water. (B) Phosphorous is soluble in carbon disulphide. (C) Oxides of phosphorous are acidic in nature. (D) Phosphorous oxides are gases.
Q) Respiration is : (A) Anabolic process (B) Endothermic process (C) Exothermic process (D) Endergonic process
Q) Identify the antioxidants used in food product- (a) Butylated hydroxy toluene (b) Polyglycostearate (c) Butylated hydroxy anisole (d) Sodium lauryl sulphate, Select the correct options (A) a and c only (B) b and d only (C) a and b only (D) b and c only
Q) Arrange the natural and artificial sweeteners according to their decreasing sweeteners valves- (a) Aspartame (b) Sucralose (c) Saccharin (d) Alitame (e) Fructose, options (A) a > b>d>e>c (B) a> b>e>d>c (C) d> b>c>a>e (D) c > a > b>e>d
Q) Which of the following is a Vat dye & often used to dyeing jeans? (A) Alizarin (B) Methylene blue (C) Crystal violet (D) Indigo
Q81) The artificial sweetener which is only stable in cold is: (A) Saccharin (B) Sucralose (C) Aspartame (D) Alitame
Q) The chief ore of copper is (A) Chalcopyrite (B) Haematite (C) Calamine (D) Bauxite
Q) Which of the following will give acetic acid on hydrolysis? (A) CH₃CH₂OH (B) CH₃COCH₃ (C) CH₃CHO (D) CH₃CN
Q) The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is (A) sec⁻¹ (B) mol litre⁻¹ sec⁻¹ (C) mol⁻¹ litre sec⁻¹ (D) mol sec⁻¹
Q26) The aggregation of surfactant molecules is known as (A) micelle (B) cluster (C) gel (D) colloid
Q) Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is : (A) The setting of plaster of paris may be catalysed by sodium chloride (B) During setting, the plaster of paris converts into monoclinic form (C) The setting of plaster of paris is retarded by addition of borax (D) Addition of alum to plaster of paris makes the setting very hard
Q) Glycine NH₂CH₂COOH behaves : (A) As a Bronsted acid (B) As a Bronsted base (C) Both as an acid and a base (D) Neither as an acid nor as a base
Q) Consider following statements.
I. Liquid sodium is used as a coolant in nuclear reactor.
II. The formula of Plaster of Paris is 2CaSO₄·H₂O.
III. Bordeaux mixture consists of sodium sulphate and lime.
IV. Zirconium is a radioactive metal.
V. Rice fields are source of marsh gas.
Correct statements are : (A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV (C) I, II and V (D) III, IV and V
Q) A Convex lens and a Concave lens, each having same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of lenses. The power in diopters of this combination is : (A) 25 (B) 50 (C) Infinite (D) Zero
Q) The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the objective and the eyepiece is found to be 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are : (A) 18 cm, 2 cm (B) 11 cm, 9 cm (C) 10 cm, 10 cm (D) 15 cm, 5 cm
Q) Resonance is an example of : (A) Tuning fork (B) Forced vibration (C) Free vibration (D) Damped vibration
Q) In a secondary coil of step-up transformer there is : (A) less turns of thin wire (B) more turns of thin wire (C) less turns of thick wire (D) more turns of thick wire
Q) In frog heart, there are cardiac muscles which consist of fibres called : (A) Purkinje fibres (B) Myonemes (C) Telodendria (D) Columnae carneae
Q) A dithecous anther develops : (A) 2 megasporangia (B) 2 microsporangia (C) 4 microsporangia (D) 4 megasporangia
Q) During his experiments with Pea, Mendel did not study the trait : (A) Pod colour (B) Position of the flowers (C) Pod shape (D) Flower colour
Q) Ovule is a : (A) Microsporangium (B) Megasporangium (C) Microsporophyll (D) Megasporophyll
Q) Hair present in skin are : (A) Epidermal in origin and made up of dead cell (B) Dermal in origin and made up of dead cell (C) Epidermal in origin and made up of living cell (D) Dermal in origin and made up of living cell
Q) Cerebral hemisphere is the centre of : (A) Thinking (B) Will power (C) Reasoning (D) All of these
Q) Position of gene on chromosome is called : (A) Locus (B) Factor (C) Cistron (D) Nucleosome
Q) An amount of DNA doubles in which phase of Interphase? (A) G1 phase (B) S phase (C) G2 phase (D) M phase
Q) Tissue system constituted by complex tissue is- (a) Epidermal tissue system (b) Ground tissue system (c) Vascular tissue system – (A) (b) and (c) are correct (B) (a) and (b) are correct (C) Only (b) is correct (D) Only (c) is correct
Q) Which Law of Mendel is based upon dihybrid crosses? (A) Law of Independent Assortment (B) Law of Dominance (C) Law of Segregation (D) Law of Incomplete Dominance
Q) Amongst following, what will be the percentage of R gene containing gametes resulted by segregation of plant RrYy? (A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 100%
Q) Which of the following genetic disorder is a Mendelian disorder? (A) Haemophilia (B) Sickle cell anaemia (C) Phenyl ketonuria (D) All the above
Q) Increasing order of strength of the following bases is – (A) Cl⁻ < CH₃COO⁻ < NH₃ (B) CH₃COO⁻ < NH₃ < Cl⁻ (C) CH₃COO⁻ < Cl⁻ < NH₃ (D) NH₃ < CH₃COO⁻ < Cl⁻
Q) The term “gene” was coined by: (A) Mendel (B) Bateson (C) Shull (D) Johannsen
Q) Who delivered the principle of ‘jumping genes’? (A) Gregor Johann Mendel (B) Thomas Hunt Morgan (C) Barbara McClintock (D) Watson and Crick
Q) Har Gobind Khorana is credited for the discovery of: (A) Synthesis of Protein (B) Synthesis of Gene (C) Synthesis of Nitrogenous (D) None of these
Q) In laboratory, who did the synthesis of DNA? (A) Miller (B) Khorana (C) D. Weris (D) Kelvin
Q) Which compound present in DNA does not form amino acid? (A) Adenine (B) Tyrosine (C) Guanine (D) Cytosine
Q) The DNA double helix structure was discovered by: (A) James Watson and Francis Crick (B) Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins (C) Linus Pauling (D) Gregor Mendel
Q) Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by: (A) Waldeiyer (B) Mendel (C) Sutton and Boveri (D) Muller
Q) Gene is: (A) A segment of DNA (B) A segment of DNA and histone (C) A segment of DNA, RNA and histone (D) All of the above
Q) Mendel took —— contrasting characteristics of pea plant in his experiments. (A) 08 (B) 07 (C) 06 (D) 05
Q) In pea plant, Green is a dominating trait of which of the following, studied by Mendel? (A) Seed (B) Flower (C) Pod (D) Stem
Q) If both genotype and phenotype shows the same ratio of 1:2:1 in the F2 generation, it shows that- (A) The plants are showing incomplete dominance in monohybrid cross. (B) The plants are showing complete dominance in monohybrid cross. (C) It is an example of dihybrid cross. (D) It is an example of co-dominance.
Q) In a human body, how many bones are found at the time of birth? (A) 273 (B) 270 (C) 201 (D) 208
Q) Which Law of Mendel is based upon Di hybrid crosses? (A) Law of Independent assortment (B) Law of Dominance (C) Law of Segregation (D) Law of Incomplete dominance
Q) Assembling multiple desirable genes from multiple parents into a single genotype for a specific trait is known as (A) Multiple resistance (B) Multiline variety (C) Gene interaction (D) Gene pyramiding
Q) During studies with Pea which of the following trait was not studied by Mendel? (A) Cotyledon colour (B) Pod shape (C) Seed coat colour (D) Flower colour
Q) The valency shell of element A contains 3 electrons while the valency shell of element B contains 6 electrons, the probable formula of compound formed between A and B is (A) AB2 (B) A3B6 (C) A6B3 (D) A2B3
Q) Consider following statements: Roasting is carried out to – 1. Convert sulphide ore into oxide, 2. Melt the ore, 3.Remove moisture, water of hydration and organic matter, 4. Reduction of ore by carbon, 5. Remove sulphur and arsenic in form of volatile oxide Correct statements are (A) 1, 3 and 5 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 3, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2 and 4
Q) Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis? (A) Lysosome and Centrosome (B) Endoplasmic reticulum and Ribosome (C) Golgi apparatus and Mitochondria (D) Lysosome and Mitochondria
Q) The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death are known as: (A) Apoptosis (B) Ageing (C) Degeneration (D) Necrosis
Q) One term that generates the maximum number of ATP atoms in our system? (A) Decomposition of glucose (B) Kreb’s cycle (C) Last respiratory series (D) Water decomposition
Q) Number of electrons in one Coulomb charge are-? (A) 5.48×10²⁹ (A) 6.25×10¹⁸ (A) 1.8×10¹⁹ (D) 62.5×10¹⁸
Q) At which site is the protein of viral coat synthesized? (A) Plasma membrane (B) Mitochondria of Host (C) Ribosomes of Host (D) RNA of Virus
Q) Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic flagella differ in the-? (A) Type of movement & placement (B) Location & mode of functioning (C) Microtubular structure and function (D) Microtubular organization and type of movement
Q) Choose the correct sequence of taxonomic categories in Linnean Hierarchy ?
(A) Phylum – Class – Family – Tribe – Order – Genus – Species
(B) Division – Class – Order – Family – Tribe – Genus – Species
(C) Order – Class – Tribe – Division – Family – Genus – Species
(D) Phylum – Class – Tribe – Order – Family – Genus – Species
Q) When the current flowing in a circular coil is doubled and the number of turns in it is halved, the magnetic field at its centre will become? (A) double (B) half (C) four times (D) same
Q) The isotopes of an element have the same nucleus? (A) Neutron Number (B) Proton Number (C) Total sum of Neutron and Proton Number (D) Both Neutron and Proton Number
Q) The names associated with first man-made recombinant DNA molecules is-? (A) Paul Berg (B) Annie Chang (C) Stanley & Boyer (D) All of the above
Q) Centrosome is found in-? (A) Cytoplasm (B) Nucleolus (C) Chromosomes (D) Nucleus
Q) Which of the following are characteristics of Genetic Code? (a) Code is Triplet (b) Universal (c) Ambiguous (d) Degenerate (A) (a), (b), (c) are correct (B) (a), (b), (d) are correct (C) (b), (c), (d) are correct (D) (a), (b), (c), (d) all are correct
Q) Which of the following is found in matrix of Mitochondria? (A) D.N.A. (B) R.N.A. (C) Ribosome (70S) (D) All of these
Q) Sugar is extracted from sugarcane and also from the crops of ? (A) Potato (B) Sweet Potato (C) Beet (D) Tapioca
Q) Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time is called as ? (A) Food crops (B) Feed crop (C) Fiber crop (D) Standing crop
Q) The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor depends on – (A) Nature of the metal (B) Distance between the plates (C) Thickness of the plates (D) Potential difference between the plates
Q) α-particle is the nucleus of following atom-? (A) Hydrogen (B) Deuterium (C) Helium (D) Tritium
Q) The S.I. unit of decay constant is-? (A) Becquerel (B) Rutherford (C) Curie (D) Thomson
Q) Which of the following law gives the direction of the induced e.m.f.? (A) Faraday’s law (B) Lenz’s law (C) Maxwell’s law (D) Ampere’s law
Q) The linear magnification of objective and eye lens of a compound microscope are m₀ and mₑ respectively. The magnifying power of microscope will be-? (A) m₀ + mₑ (B) m₀ − mₑ (C) m₀ × mₑ (D) m₀/mₑ
Q) The wavelength of a photon is 5000 Å, its momentum will be-? (A) 1.32×10⁻²⁷ kg m/s (B) 1.5×10⁻²⁷ kg m/s (C) 2.32×10⁻²⁷ kg m/s (D) 5.0×10⁻²⁷ kg m/s
Q) Assertion (A): α-rays have greater ionising power than β-rays. Reason (R): α-particle is the helium nucleus.?
(A) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(B) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
Q) The shape of a molecule which has 3 bond pairs (BP) and one lone pair (LP) is-? (A) Octahedral (B) Pyramidal (C) Triangular planar (D) Tetrahedral
Q) Assertion (A): Nuclei of different atoms have same size. Reason (R): R = R₀ A¹ᐟ³?
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true
Q) As shown in figure light rays of blue (B), green (G) and red (R) wavelengths are incident on prism. The ray of light will be transmitted through the face AC (μᵣ = 1.39, μg = 1.424, μb = 1.476)?
(A) Blue rays (B) Green rays (C) Red rays (D) Blue and Green rays both
Q) During Mitosis, ER & Nucleolus begin to disappear at-? (A) Late prophase (B) Early Metaphase (C) Late Metaphase (D) Early Prophase
Q) The active site of an enzyme is formed by some of its-? (A) R group of amino acids (B) Amino groups of amino acids (C) Carboxyl groups of amino acids (D) Exposed Sulphur bonds
Q) The F₂ Ratio of Recessive Epistasis is-? (A) 9:6:1 (B) 9:3:4 (C) 12:3:1 (D) 9:6:9
Q) Tissue level body organization occurs in ? (A) Protozoa (B) Porifera (C) Coelenterates (D) Helminthes
Q) For n-type semiconductor, it is stated that-
(I) There are more number of electrons and less number of holes.
(II) There are less number of electrons and less number of holes.
(III) It is negatively charged.
(IV) It is electrically neutral.
Select the correct answer – (A) Only (I) is correct (B) Only (I) and (III) are correct (C) Only (II), (III) and (IV) are correct (D) Only (I) and (IV) are correct
Q) Endosperm persist in mature seed among which of the following? (A) Pea (B) Castor (C) Ground nut (D) Beans
Q) Arrange the phases of prophase I stage of meiotic division- (a) Pachytene (b) Diplotene (c) Zygotene (d) Leptotene
A. (d)→(c)→(a)→(b)
B. (d)→(c)→(b)→(a)
C. (d)→(b)→(c)→(a)
D. (d)→(a)→(c)→(b)
Q) Assertion (A): Primary Endosperm nucleus is Triploid.
Reason (R): Develops from syngamy.
(A) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct
(B) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong
(C) Assertion (A) & Reason (R) both are wrong
(D) Assertion (A) is wrong, Reason (R) is correct
Q) Which of the following are synthetic auxin? (a) L.A.A. (b) I.B.A. (c) Ν.Α.Α. (d) 2,4 D A. (a) & (b) are correct B. (c) & (d) are correct C. (a) & (c) are correct D. (b) & (d) are correct
Q) A causal organism of Potato spindle tuber disease is – (A) Bacteria (B) Viruses (C) Viroids (D) Prions
Q1) What is the SI unit of energy? (A) Newton (B) Joule (C) Watt (D) Calorie
Q2) At the highest point of a free fall, which energy is maximum? (A) Kinetic energy (B) Chemical energy (C) Potential energy (D) Mechanical energy
Q3) If two people of equal weight climb a rope, who uses more power? (A) The one who climbs slower (B) The one who climbs faster (C) Both use equal power (D) The taller one
Q4) What happens to kinetic energy as an object falls freely under gravity? (A) It decreases (B) It increases (C) It remains constant (D) It becomes zero
Q5) Power is defined as: (A) Work × Time (B) Work / Time (C) Time / Work (D) Energy + Time
Q6) What is the SI unit of Power? (A) Newton (B) Joule (C) Watt (D) Calorie
Q7) The unit of energy is – (A) Electron – volt (B) Joule (C) Kilowatt-hour (D) All of the above
Q8) Electron volt is a unit of – (A) Energy (B) Force (C) Frequency (D) Current
Q9) Which is not unit of pressure? (A) Torr (B) Bar (C) Newton per metre (D) Pascal
Q10) Light of wave lengths 5500°A falls on a plane reflecting surface. The reflected wave lengths is– (A) 5500°A (B) < 5500°A (C) > 5500°A (D) Cannot say anything
An object of mass m moving with a velocity v is approaching a second object of the same mass but at rest. What is the total kinetic energy. E, of the two objects as viewed from the centre of mass?
Q11) The Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid body is – (A) zero (B) equal to 1 (C) less than 1 (D) infinity
Q12) The rate of change of the momentum is equal to – (A) Velocity (B) Acceleration (C) Force (D) Mass
Q13) In an isothermal process, the internal energy of the system – (A) increases (B) decreases (C) changes (D) remains constant
Q14) Match the following (Group I and II)
(a) 1 Astronomical unit – (I) 9.46 × 10¹⁵ meter
(b) 1 Parsec – (II) 1 × 10⁻¹⁰ meter
(c) 1 Light year – (III) 1.496 × 10¹¹ meter
(d) 1 Angstrom – (IV) 3.08 × 10¹⁶ meter
Choose the correct option
(A) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
(B) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
(C) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
(D) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
Q15) Make correct pair (Column I and Column II)
(I) Unit of Speed – (a) meter
(II) Velocity – (b) displacement/time
(III) Displacement – (c) meter/second²
(IV) Acceleration – (d) meter/second
Choose the correct option
(A) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d
(B) I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c
(C) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-c
(D) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d
Q16) Match the following (Column I and Column II)
(a) Lysosome – (I) Secretion
(b) Golgi apparatus – (II) Digestion
(c) Mitochondria – (III) Excretory Material
(d) Vacuole – (IV) Energy Formation
Choose the correct option
(A) a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
(B) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
(C) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
(D) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
Q17) Arrange the Trophic levels in a Food Chain –
(a) Man
(b) Phytoplankton
(c) Fishes
(d) Zooplanktons
Choose the correct option
(A) (b)→(d)→(a)→(c)
(B) (b)→(d)→(c)→(a)
(C) (b)→(c)→(d)→(a)
(D) (b)→(c)→(a)→(d)
Q18) Which of the following is a part of transcription unit in DNA? (A) Promoter (B) Structural genes (C) Terminator (D) All of these
Q19) All of the following are nutrients found in food except – (A) Plasma (B) Proteins (C) Carbohydrates (D) Vitamins
Q20) Amylase in saliva begins the breakdown of carbohydrates into – (A) Fatty acid (B) Amino acid (C) Polypeptides (D) Simple sugar
Q21) Which of these is not considered a nutrient? (A) Vitamins (B) Minerals (C) Fiber (D) Fats
Q22) All of the following are needed for strong bones except (A) Magnesium (B) Thiamin (C) Calcium (D) Vitamin-D
Q23) What is the unit for the measure of electrical pressure or electromotive force? (A) amp (B) ohm (C) volt (D) watt
Q24) Which of the following determines total power in a series circuit? (A) source voltage multiplied by the current (B) total voltage applied to the circuit (C) current flowing through a switch (D) average of the wattage consumed by each resistor
Q25) A current I flows along the length of an infinitely long, straight, thin walled pipe. Then: (A) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe. (B) the magnetic field is different at different points inside the pipe. (C) the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero. (D) the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the same, but not zero.
Q26) The number of compressions or rarefactions per unit time gives – (A) Frequency (B) Time period (C) Amplitude (D) Pitch
Q27) Match the image formed by concave mirror for different positions of the following objects:
(A) Beyond C → (I) At C
(B) At C → (II) Between F & C
(C) Between C & F → (III) At infinity
(D) At F → (IV) Beyond C
Options:
(A) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
(B) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
(C) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
(D) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
Q28) Arrange the following physical quantities in terms of the ascending power of dimension unit T (Time) in their dimensional formulas.
(J) Moment of inertia
(K) Universal Gas constant
(L) Power
(M) Momentum
Options:
(A) M < L < K < J
(B) K < L < M < J
(C) L < K < M < J
(D) L < M < J < K
Q29) In a uniform circular motion: (A) both velocity and acceleration remain constant (B) acceleration and speed remain constant but velocity changes (C) both acceleration and velocity change (D) both acceleration and speed are constant
Q30) If the units of length and force are increased four times each, then the unit of energy is increased: (A) 4 times (B) 16 times (C) 8 times (D) No increase
Q31) SI unit of gas constant is: (A) calorie/°C (B) joule/mole (C) joule/k mole (D) joule/kg
Q32) Match List-I (Pollutants) and List-II (Measurement Techniques)
(a) CO | (i) Gravimetric
(b) NO₂ | (ii) Chemiluminescence
(c) SO₂ | (iii) U.V. Fluorescence
(d) PM₂.₅ | (iv) NDIR
Codes:
(A) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(B) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(C) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(D) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)
Q33) The image formed by convex mirror is always – (A) Real (B) Enlarged (C) Virtual and Enlarged (D) Diminished
Q34) The number of compressions or rarefactions per unit time gives – (A) Frequency (B) Time period (C) Amplitude (D) Pitch
Q35) In which form, energy released by oxidation of carbohydrate is stored in the cells? (A) Adenosine diphosphate (B) Adenosine triphosphate (C) Fat (D) Glycogen
Q36) Ketone bodies are products of incomplete utilization of which nutrient? (A) Carbohydrate (B) Protein (C) Fat (D) Vitamin
Q37) Urea is the metabolic end product of which nutrient? (A) Fat (B) Protein (C) Carbohydrate (D) Mineral
Q38) The amount of heat resulting from the complete oxidation of unit weight of a food is called as – (A) Metabolizable energy (B) Net energy (C) Gross energy (D) Digestible energy
Q39) In the following, which is a fundamental physical quantity? (a) Force (b) Velocity (c) Electric current (d) Work
Q40) Which of the following units is the unit of work? (a) Joule (b) Newton-meter (c) Kilowatt (d) Both 1 and 2
Q41) 1 commercial unit of electrical energy is equal to ____ joules. (a) 3.6 × 10⁵ (b) 3.6 × 10⁶ (c) 3.6 × 10⁷ (d) 3.6 × 10⁸
Q42) One pikogram is equal to – (A) 10⁻⁶ gram (B) 10⁻⁹ gram (C) 10⁻¹² gram (D) 10⁻¹⁵ gram
Q43) Magnetic flux has the unit of – (A) newton (B) weber (C) ampere (D) tesla
Q44) Inductor does not allow the sudden change of – (A) current (B) voltage (C) power (D) None of the above
Q45) Electric flux is proportional to – (A) potential difference between electrodes (B) resistivity of medium (C) rate of change of potential difference (D) rate of change of current
Q46) A magnifying glass is made of a combination of convex lens of power +20 dioptre and a concave lens of power –4 dioptre. If the distance of distinct vision of the eye is 25 cm, the magnifying power of the glass is: (A) 5 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 12
Q47) A neutral point in the magnetic field, due to a magnet in a laboratory on earth, is a point where: (A) The lines of force of the magnet intersect each other (B) The earth’s magnetic field is zero (C) The field due to the magnet is zero (D) The fields of the magnet and the earth are equal and opposite
Q48) Range of frequencies allotted for commercial FM radio broadcast is: (A) 88 to 108 MHz (B) 80 to 108 KHz (C) 8 to 88 MHz (D) 88 to 108 GHz
Q49 A couple produces: (A) No motion (B) Only translational motion (C) Only rotational motion (D) Both translational and rotational motion
Q50) If the ratio of densities of two substances is 5:6 and that of the specific heat is 3:5, then the ratio between heat capacities per unit volume is: (A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 3
Q51) The distance of a geostationary satellite from the centre of earth is approximately (Radius of earth R = 6400 km): (A) 15 R (B) 10 R (C) 7 R (D) 5 R
Q52) Two water droplets merge with each other to form a larger droplet. In this process: (A) Energy is liberated (B) Energy is absorbed (C) Energy is neither liberated nor absorbed (D) Some mass is converted into energy
Q53) The work done by the motor per unit time is called __________. (A) power (B) energy (C) acceleration (D) momentum
Q54) What percentage of solar energy is captured by green plants in terrestrial ecosystems? (A) 10 percent (B) 2.5 percent (C) 100 percent (D) 1 percent
Q55) Which of the following elements is extracted by using electrolytic reduction? (A) Zn (B) Fe (C) Pb (D) Na
Q56) The formula unit mass of CaCl₂ is: (A) 115 u (B) 114 u (C) 111 u (D) 110 u
Q57) Which of the following hormones stimulates the growth of all organs? (A) Adrenaline (B) Glucagon (C) Insulin (D) Growth hormone
Q58) The work done per unit volume in stretching the wire is equal to: (A) Stress × Strain (B) ½ Stress × Strain (C) Stress / Strain (D) Strain / Stress
Q59) Peptidoglycon (mucopeptide) is found in: (A) Cell wall of Gram +ve bacteria and Cyanobacteria (B) Cell wall of Gram +ve and -ve bacteria (C) Cell membrane of Gram -ve bacteria (D) Cell membrane of Cyanobacteria
Q60) Presence of urea in the blood is called: (A) Uraemia (B) Haematuria (C) Diurea (D) Anuria
Q61) In power systems, short-circuit current can be limited by using: (A) Reactors (B) Fuse (C) Isolators (D) Oil circuit breaker
Q62) The correct formula for electric power is: (A) P = V·I·T (B) P = V·T (C) P = V·I (D) P = V/I
Q63) The dimension equivalent to joule is: (A) M⁻¹ L² T (B) ML⁻¹ T⁻¹ (C) ML² T⁻² (D) ML² T⁻¹
Q64) Which scientist has given laws of Electrolysis? (A) Kelvin (B) Dalton (C) Archimedes (D) M. Faraday
Q65) Identify the correct statement from among the following: (A) Work and kinetic energy do not have the same unit (B) Work = Energy × Power (C) Work is equal to power per unit time (D) Work and potential energy have the same unit
Q66) Which of the pairs of quantities can be expressed using the same unit? (A) Power and momentum (B) Impulse and potential energy (C) Acceleration and weight (D) Work and kinetic energy
Q67) A concave lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At what distance should the object be placed from the lens so that it forms an image at 20 cm from the lens? (A) 60 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 15 cm
Q68) Which of the following is not occurred during photosynthesis? (A) Absorption of light by green plants (B) Splitting of water molecules (C) Reduction of carbon dioxide (D) Utilization of oxygen
Q69) ________ on thermal decomposition produces CaO and carbon dioxide. (A) Lime (B) Slaked lime (C) Limestone (D) Lime water
Q70) Formula of sodium zincate is: (A) Na₂Zn₂O₂ (B) Na₂ZnO₂ (C) Na₂ZnO (D) Na₂ZnO₂
Q71) The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the: (A) Pupil (B) Retina (C) Ciliary muscles (D) Iris
Q72) Which of the following organisms obtain their food through heterotrophic mode of nutrition? (A) Sugarcane plant (B) Cuscuta plant (C) Mango plant (D) Diatoms
Q73) All metal hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give ______ gas. (A) CO₂ (B) O₂ (C) H₂ (D) Cl₂
Q74) When pH of rain water is less than ________, it is called acid rain. (A) 7.4 (B) 7.2 (C) 5.6 (D) 6.5
Q75) A current of 0.25 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 5 minutes. The amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit is: (A) 25 C (B) 50 C (C) 75 C (D) 100 C
Q76) This is called energy currency of the cell: (A) Pyruvate (B) Ethanol (C) ATP (D) Glucose
Q78) Tooth enamel, made up of ______, is the hardest substance in the body. (A) Calcium carbonate (B) Calcium phosphate (C) Calcium oxide (D) Calcium hydrogen carbonate
Q79) ________ is used as an antacid. (A) NaOH (B) Mg(OH)₂ (C) KOH (D) LiOH
Q80) The SI unit of resistivity is: (A) Ohm (B) Ohm metre (C) Ohm per metre (D) Per ohm metre
Q81) In which unit is the electric charge measured? (A) Ampere (B) Volt (C) Coulomb (D) Ohm
Q82) If resistance is doubled and voltage remains constant, what happens to the current? (A) It doubles (B) It becomes half (C) It remains the same (D) It becomes zero
Q83) What is used to vary the resistance in an electric circuit? (A) Ammeter (B) Voltmeter (C) Resistor (D) Rheostat
Q84) When the length of a wire is doubled, what happens to its resistance? (A) It becomes half (B) It becomes double (C) It remains the same (D) It becomes zero
Q85) Which of the following materials has the lowest resistivity? (A) Nichrome (B) Copper (C) Iron (D) Aluminium
Q86) What is the SI unit of resistivity? (A) Ohm (B) Ohm/m (C) Ohm·m (D) Volt·meter
Q87) Which of the following is a poor conductor? (A) Copper (B) Aluminium (C) Iron (D) Nichrome
Q88) If a wire of 1 m length and 0.3 mm diameter has a resistance of 26 Ω, what is its resistivity? (A) 1.84 × 10⁻⁶ Ωm (B) 3.00 × 10⁻⁶ Ωm (C) 2.60 × 10⁻⁶ Ωm (D) 1.50 × 10⁻⁶ Ωm
Q89) if the length is halved and the cross-sectional area is doubled, the resistance becomes: (A) 2 Ω (B) 1 Ω (C) 4 Ω (D) 8 Ω
Q90) In a series combination of resistors: (A) Current remains the same (B) Voltage remains the same (C) Resistance remains the same (D) Power remains the same
Q91) Which of the following best describes resistors in parallel? (A) Same current flows through each resistor (B) Voltage is divided among resistors (C) Same voltage across each resistor (D) Current is the same across each resistor
Q92) What is the total potential difference across resistors connected in series? (A) Equal to the difference across the largest resistor (B) Equal to the sum of individual potential differences (C) Equal to the difference across the smallest resistor (D) Cannot be determined
Q93) What happens to the total resistance when resistors are connected in series? (A) It becomes less than the smallest resistance (B) It remains the same as one resistor (C) It becomes the sum of all resistances (D) It becomes zero
Q94) If R₁ = 20Ω and R₂ = 4Ω are connected in series to a 6V battery, what is the current in the circuit? (A) 6 A (B) 1.5 A (C) 0.25 A (D) 0.5 A
Q95) In a parallel combination, what remains the same across all resistors? (A) Current (B) Resistance (C) Voltage (D) Power
Q96) What is the total current in a parallel circuit made of three resistors if the branch currents are 2.4 A, 1.2 A, and 0.4 A respectively? (A) 2 A (B) 3 A (C) 4 A (D) 1.6 A
Q97) The equivalent resistance of three resistors in parallel with values 5Ω, 10Ω, and 30Ω is: (A) 3Ω (B) 4Ω (C) 15Ω (D) 10Ω
Q98) In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each resistor is: (A) Zero (B) Different (C) Same (D) Double
Q99) The heat produced in a resistor when a current I flows through it for time t is given by: (A) H=IV (B) H= I V (C) H=VIt (D) H=It/V
Q100) According to Joule’s law, the heat produced in a resistor is: (A) Inversely proportional to resistance (B) Directly proportional to square of the current (C) Inversely proportional to time (D) Independent of current
Q101) The fuse wire is made of a metal or alloy with: (A) Very high melting point (B) Very low melting point (C) High conductivity only (D) High resistance only
Q102) A 220 V generator is connected to a bulb that draws 0.5 A current. What is the power consumed? (A) 110 W (B) 220 W (C) 55 W (D) 330 W
Q103) A piece of wire of resistance 𝑅 R is cut into five equal parts and connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance is R′ , the ratio R/R ′ is: (A) 1/25 (B) 1/5 (C) 5 (D) 25
Q104) Which of the following terms does not represent electric power in a circuit? (A) FR (B) IR² (C) VI (D) V²/R
Q105) An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be: (A) 100 W (B) 75 W (C) 50 W (D) 25 W
Q106) The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel combinations of two identical wires is: (A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1
Q107) Who discovered the magnetic effect of electric current? (A) Isaac Newton (B) Hans Christian Oersted (C) Michael Faraday (D) James Clerk Maxwell
Q108) What is the direction of magnetic field lines outside a bar magnet? (A) From south to north (B) From north to south (C) Circular around the magnet (D) From the center outward
Q109) Which rule helps determine the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field? (A) Right-hand rule (B) Ampere’s rule (C) Fleming’s left-hand rule (D) Maxwell’s rule
Q110) At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit (A) reduces substantially (B) does not change (C) increases heavily (D) varies continuously
Q111) Motion is said to be uniform when: (A) Object moves in a circle (B) Equal distance is covered in equal intervals of time (C) Speed increases constantly (D) There is no movement
Q112) Which of the following quantities requires direction for complete description? (A) Speed (B) Distance (C) Displacement (D) Time
Q113) Which of the following is an example of accelerated motion? (A) Earth revolving around the Sun (B) A stone falling freely (C) A car stopping at a signal (D) All of the above
Q114) Which physical quantity is represented by the area under a velocity-time graph? (A) Speed (B) Distance (C) Displacement (D) Time
Q115) What is the nature of a velocity-time graph for an object with uniform velocity? (A) Curved line (B) Sloped line (C) Horizontal straight line (D) Vertical line
Q116) What is the acceleration of a car that speeds up from 18 km/h to 36 km/h in 5 seconds? (A) 2 m/s² (B) 1 m/s² (C) 5 m/s² (D) 10 m/s²
Q117) How far will a car move before stopping if brakes are applied, producing a deceleration of 6 m/s² over 2 seconds? (A) 6 m (B) 10 m (C) 12 m (D) 18 m
Q118) What type of motion does an object exhibit when it moves in a circular path with constant speed? (A) Uniform motion (B) Linear motion (C) Accelerated motion (D) Stationary motion
Q119) What is the tendency of objects to remain in their state of motion called? (A) Momentum (B) Friction (C) Inertia (D) Force
Q120) What is the momentum of an object of mass m, moving with velocity v? (A) mv² (B) mu² (C) ½ mv² (D) mv
Q121) SI unit of momentum is: (A) kg·m/s (B) kg·m/s² (C) N·s (D) m/s
Q122) What happens to gravitational force if the distance between two objects is doubled? (A) It becomes four times (B) It becomes half (C) It becomes one-fourth (D) It remains the same
Q123) What is the value of acceleration due to gravity on Earth? (A) 8.9 m/s² (B) 10.8 m/s² (C) 9.8 m/s² (D) 6.7 m/s²
Q124) What is the unit of weight in the SI system ? (A) Kilogram (B) Meter (C) Newton (D) Joule
Q125) What is the weight of a 10 kg object on Earth and Moon ? (A) 98 N and 1.67 N (B) 10 N and 6 N (C) 9.8 N ad 60 N (D) 100 N and 0.67 N
Q126) What is thrust? (A) Force acting parallel to a surface (B) Force acting perpendicular to a surface (C) Weight of an object (D) Pressure applied by a fluid
Q127) When standing on sand, you sink deeper than lying down because: (A) Pressure is lower when standing (B) Thrust is higher while lying (C) Area is smaller when standing, increasing pressure (D) Sand is denser while lying
Q128) Archimedes’ principle is related to: (A) Law of motion (B) Law of inertia (C) Buoyant force (D) Newton’s law of gravity
Q129) What happens to the reading on the spring balance when a stone is immersed in water? (A) It increases (B) It decreases (C) It remains the same (D) It first increases then decreases
Q130) What is the relationship between radius of curvature (R) and focal length (f)? (A) R=f (B) R=4f (C) R=f/2 (D) R=2f
Q131) Where is the image formed when an object is placed at infinity in front of a concave mirror? (A) At C (B) At F (C) At infinity (D) Between P and F
Q132) What is the nature of the image when the object is placed between pole and focus in a concave mirror? (A) Real and inverted (B) Virtual and erect (C) Real and erect (D) Virtual and inverted
Q133) If the radius of curvature of a mirror is 20 cm, what is its focal length? (A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 40 cm
Q134) What kind of image is formed by a convex mirror? (A) Real and inverted (B) Virtual and erect (C) Real and erect (D) Virtual and inverted
Q135) A positive magnification value indicates that the image is: (A) Real and inverted (B) Virtual and erect (C) Diminished (D) Behind the mirror
Q136) In which situation do letters appear raised? (A) When seen under a transparent glass slab (B) When submerged in water (C) When seen in a mirror (D) When seen through a lens
Q137) In the refraction experiment with a glass slab, the emergent ray: (A) Is bent in a different direction (B) Is parallel to the incident ray (C) Disappears (D) Travels straight without any change
Q138) According to Snell’s law, the ratio (sin 𝑖 /sin 𝑟) is: (A) Always greater than 1 (B) Always less than 1 (C) Constant (D) Zero
Q139) The refractive index of a medium depends on: (A) Colour of the object (B) Speed of sound in the medium (C) Speed of light in the medium (D) Density of molecules
Q140) Which of the following has the highest optical density? (A) Ice (B) Sapphire (C) Crown glass (D) Water
Q141) In which medium does light travel the fastest? (A) Diamond (B) Water (C) Air (D) Glass
Q142) What happens when parallel rays fall on a convex lens? (A) They diverge after refraction (B) They pass undeviated (C) They converge at the principal focus (D) They form a virtual image
Q143) The distance between the lens and its principal focus is called: (A) Radius of curvature (B) Aperture (C) Optical length (D) Focal length
Q144) A concave lens always forms: (A) Real and inverted images (B) Virtual and erect images (C) Same-sized images (D) Enlarged images
Q145) When an object is placed between focus and optical center of a convex lens, the image formed is: (A) Real and inverted (B) Same size (C) Virtual, erect, enlarged (D) No image formed
Q146) A ray of light passing through the optical centre of a lens will: (A) Bend toward the normal (B) Emerge undeviated (C) Reflect back (D) Get dispersed
Q147) For a concave lens, the focal length is: (A) Always zero (B) Positive (C) Negative (D) Sometimes positive
Q148) The image formed by a concave lens is: (A) Real and inverted (B) Virtual and erect (C) Enlarged and real (D) On the opposite side of the object
Q149) Magnification is defined as: (A) Object distance / Image distance (B) Height of object / Height of image (C) Height of image / Height of object (D) Image distance × Object distance
Q150) The image formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect, and larger than the object. Where is the object placed? (A) Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature (B) At the centre of curvature (C) Beyond the centre of curvature (D) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus
Q151) Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the same size? (A) At the principal focus (B) At twice the focal length (C) At infinity (D) Between the optical centre and principal focus
Q152) A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens each have focal length of –15 cm. What are they likely to be? (A) Both concave (B) Both convex (C) Mirror is concave, lens is convex (D) Mirror is convex, lens is concave
Q153) From a mirror, your image always appears erect. The mirror is likely: (A) Only plane (B) Only concave (C) Only convex (D) Either plane or convex
Q154) Which lens is best for reading small letters in a dictionary? (A) Convex lens of focal length 50 cm (B) Concave lens of focal length 50 cm (C) Convex lens of focal length 5 cm (D) Concave lens of focal length 5 cm
Q155) Which part of the eye controls the amount of light entering it? (A) Retina (B) Cornea (C) Iris (D) Optic nerve
Q156) What kind of lens is used to correct myopia? (A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens (C) Cylindrical lens (D) Bifocal lens
Q157) Which of the following is NOT a refractive defect of vision? (A) Myopia (B) Hypermetropia (C) Astigmatism (D) Cataract
Q158) Presbyopia occurs due to: (A) Cloudy lens (B) Elongation of eyeball (C) Weakening of ciliary muscles and loss of flexibility (D) Excessive curvature of the cornea
Q159) What is the phenomenon of splitting of white light into seven colors called? (A) Refraction (B) Reflection (C) Dispersion (D) Scattering
Q160) Why does the sky appear blue? (A) Due to reflection of sunlight (B) Due to dispersion (C) Due to scattering of blue light (D) Due to refraction
Q161) Which color bends the most while passing through a prism? (A) Red (B) Violet (C) Green (D) Yellow
Q162) The twinkling of stars is due to: (A) Reflection (B) Refraction through the Earth’s atmosphere (C) Dispersion of light (D) Scattering of light
Q163) What causes the red color of the Sun at sunrise or sunset? (A) Maximum scattering of red light (B) Minimum scattering of red light (C) Total internal reflection (D) Dispersion of light
Q164) Which of the following is a longitudinal wave? (A) Light (B) Sound (C) Water ripple (D) Radio wave
Q165) Rarefaction in a sound wave is a region of: (A) High pressure (B) Low pressure (C) Zero pressure (D) No particles
Q166) What is the SI unit of frequency? (A) Newton (B) Pascal (C) Hertz (D) Joule
Q167) Which part of the sound wave is related to loudness? (A) Frequency (B) Amplitude (C) Wavelength (D) Speed
Q168) If the frequency of a wave increases, what happens to its pitch? (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains same (D) Becomes zero
Q169) Which wave property determines the speed of sound in a medium? (A) Amplitude (B) Frequency (C) Medium properties (D) Wavelength
Q170) In which medium does sound travel the fastest? (A) Air (B) Water (C) Iron (D) Hydrogen
Q171) What is the minimum time interval between the original sound and the echo? (A) 0.01 s (B) 0.1 s (C) 1 s (D) 10 s
Q172) What is reverberation? (A) Original sound (B) Echo of sound (C) Prolonged sound due to reflection (D) Absorbed sound
Q173) Which instrument uses multiple reflections of sound to hear heartbeat? (A) Megaphone (B) Horn (C) Stethoscope (D) Trumpet
Q174) Which frequency range is ultrasonic? (A) Below 20 Hz (B) 20 Hz – 20000 Hz (C) Above 20000 Hz (D) 10 Hz – 1000 Hz
Q175) What type of waves are used to clean electronic components? (A) Light waves (B) Radio waves (C) Ultrasonic waves (D) Infrasonic waves
Q176) Which device helps detect internal cracks in metal blocks? (A) X-ray (B) Ultrasonic detector (C) Stethoscope (D) Thermometer
Q177) What is the use of echocardiography? (A) To measure blood pressure (B) To hear heartbeat (C) To image the heart (D) To measure oxygen level
Q179) What is the frequency range of ultrasound? (A) Below 20 Hz (B) 20 Hz – 20000 Hz (C) Above 20000 Hz (D) 10 Hz – 1000 Hz
Q180) Which organ is not commonly imaged using ultrasound? (A) Liver (B) Uterus (C) Kidney (D) Bones
Q181) Which instrument is used to detect flaws in metal blocks? (A) Thermometer (B) X-ray (C) Ultrasonic detector (D) Microphone
Q182) What type of wave is a sound wave? (A) Transverse (B) Circular (C) Longitudinal (D) Electromagnetic
Q183) Diffusion increases with: (A) Decrease in temperature (B) Constant temperature (C) Increase in temperature (D) Decrease in particle size only
Q184) The force of attraction between particles is: (A) Same in all substances (B) Non-existent (C) Varies from substance to substance (D) Only found in gases
Q185) What is the latent heat of fusion? (A) Heat absorbed during vaporization (B) Heat absorbed to increase temperature (C) Heat absorbed to convert solid to liquid (D) Heat released during condensation
Q186) What is the melting point of ice? (A) 0°C (B) 273 K (C) 273.15 K (D) All of the above
Q187) Which of the following processes does NOT involve a liquid state? (A) Melting (B) Boiling (C) Sublimation (D) Condensation
Q188) Which factor does NOT increase the rate of evaporation? (A) Higher temperature (B) Higher surface area (C) More humidity (D) More wind speed
Q189) Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture? (A) Oil and water (B) Salt dissolved in water (C) Soil (D) Iron and sulphur mixture
Q190) What kind of solution is lemonade? (A) Heterogeneous mixture (B) Solid-solid mixture (C) Homogeneous solution (D) Gas in gas mixture
Q191) What does a saturated solution mean? (A) No solute is present (B) Water is the solute (C) No more solute can dissolve (D) Solution is diluted
Q192) Which of the following is NOT a property of a suspension? (A) Particles are visible to the naked eye (B) It is a heterogeneous mixture (C) Particles cannot be separated by filtration (D) Solute particles scatter light
Q193) Which mixture shows the Tyndall effect? (A) Sugar solution (B) Salt solution (C) Milk (D) Alcohol-water solution
Q194) What kind of change is rusting of iron? (A) Physical change (B) Reversible change (C) Chemical change (D) Temporary change
Q195) Colloids are stable because: (A) Particles are heavy (B) They dissolve completely (C) Particles do not settle down (D) They can be filtered easily
Q196) Which one is an example of physical change? (A) Burning paper (B) Boiling of water (C) Rusting of iron (D) Explosion of firecrackers
Q197) Which of the following is a compound? (A) Iron (B) Water (C) Oxygen (D) Copper
Q198) Which is a characteristic of a mixture? (A) Fixed composition (B) New properties formed (C) Components can be separated physically (D) Uniform properties throughout
Q199) Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture? (A) Oil in water (B) Sand and salt (C) Salt in water (D) Iron filings and sulphur
Q200) What gas is released when heated iron filings with sulphur? (A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen sulphide
Q201) Which of these will show the Tyndall effect? (A) Salt solution (B) Copper sulphate solution (C) Milk (D) Sugar solution
Q202) Which solution has the highest solubility at 293 K? (A) Potassium nitrate (B) Sodium chloride (C) Ammonium chloride (D) Potassium chloride
Q203) Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture? (A) Soil (B) Vinegar (C) Wood (D) Air and soil
Q204) Who proposed the concept of ‘Parmanu’ in ancient India? (A) Democritus (B) Leucippus (C) Kanad (D) Dalton
Q205) The Law of Conservation of Mass was proposed by: (A) Proust (B) Dalton (C) Rutherford (D) Lavoisier
Q206) According to Dalton’s Atomic Theory, atoms of the same element are: (A) Different in mass (B) Identical in all respects (C) Non-reactive (D) Large in size
Q207) In a compound, the ratio of mass of hydrogen to oxygen is always: (A) 2:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 1:8 (D) 8:1
Q208) Atomic size is measured in: (A) Millimeters (B) Meters (C) Centimeters (D) Nanometers
Q209) Which unit is used to measure atomic mass? (A) Gram (B) Kilogram (C) Unified mass unit (u) (D) Mole
Q210) The standard atom used for defining atomic mass is: (A) Oxygen-16 (B) Carbon-12 (C) Hydrogen-1 (D) Helium-4
Q211) What is the atomic mass of Oxygen? (A) 12 (B) 1 (C) 16 (D) 23
Q212) The atomicity of sulphur is: (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
Q213) A positively charged ion is called: (A) Anion (B) Proton (C) Cation (D) Molecule
Q214) What is valency? (A) Mass of an element (B) Size of an atom (C) Combining capacity of an element (D) Density of an element
Q215) Which of the following is a correct formula using the criss-cross method? (A) CaCl (B) MgCl₂ (C) AlO₂ (D) H₂Cl
Q216) Which ion has a charge of 2+? (A) Na⁺ (B) Al³⁺ (C) Mg²⁺ (D) Cl⁻
Q217) Which of the following is a polyatomic ion? (A) Cl⁻ (B) OH⁻ (C) O²⁻ (D) Na⁺
Q218) What is the molecular mass of HNO₃? (A) 63 u (B) 16 u (C) 1 u (D) 18 u
Q219) Which law states that the total mass of reactants and products remains unchanged in a reaction? (A) Law of Definite Proportions (B) Law of Mass Conservation (C) Law of Conservation of Mass (D) Law of Atomic Structure
Q220) Which of the following is a polyatomic ion? (A) Na⁺ (B) Cl⁻ (C) SO₄²⁻ (D) H⁺
Q221) A molecule is: (A) An atom with charge (B) The largest particle of a compound (C) A cluster of different ions (D) The smallest particle with independent existence
Q222) What is the valency of phosphate ion (PO₄³⁻)? (A) 2⁻ (B) 1⁻ (C) 3⁻ (D) 4⁻
Q223) What did Rutherford’s gold foil experiment prove? (A) Atoms are indivisible (B) Electrons are positively charged (C) Atom has a small, dense, positively charged nucleus (D) Electrons are embedded in a positive sphere
Q224) According to Bohr’s model, electrons: (A) Can move randomly in any path (B) Radiate energy in fixed orbits (C) Move in discrete orbits without energy loss (D) Stay outside the atom
Q225) What is the maximum number of electrons in the M shell? (A) 8 (B) 18 (C) 32 (D) 2
Q226) Which particle was discovered by J. Chadwick? (A) Proton (B) Electron (C) Neutron (D) Positron
Q227) Which of the following has a valency of zero? (A) Hydrogen (B) Fluorine (C) Neon (D) Carbon
Q228) The maximum number of electrons in a shell is given by: (A) n² (B) 2n² (C) 4n (D) n/2
Q229) The atomic number of an element is determined by: (A) Number of neutrons (B) Number of protons (C) Number of electrons in outermost shell (D) Sum of electrons and neutrons
Q230) Mass number is: (A) Number of neutrons only (B) Number of protons only (C) Number of protons + neutrons (D) Number of electrons + protons
Q231) Which of the following is an example of isobars? (A) ¹H and ²H (B) ⁶C¹² and ⁶C¹⁴ (C) ²⁰Ca⁴⁰ and ¹⁸Ar⁴⁰ (D) ₁₇Cl³⁵ and ₁₇Cl³⁷
Q232) The average atomic mass of chlorine is: (A) 35 u (B) 36 u (C) 35.5 u (D) 34.5 u
Q233) An isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of: (A) Cancer (B) Goitre (C) Fever (D) Asthma
Q234) Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of (A) Atomic Nucleus (B) Electron (C) Proton (D) Neutron
Q235) Isotopes of an element have (A) the same physical properties (B) different chemical properties (C) different number of neutrons (D) different atomic numbers
Q236) Number of valence electrons in Cl⁻ ion are: (A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 17 (D) 18
Q237) Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium? (A) 2,8 (B) 8,2,1 (C) 2,1,8 (D) 2,8,1
Q238) Which of the following metals is liquid at room temperature? (A) Mercury (B) Gallium (C) Iron (D) Sodium
Q239) Which metal is the best conductor of heat? (A) Iron (B) Aluminium (C) Silver (D) Lead
Q240) The metals that can be cut with a knife are: (A) Iron and copper (B) Sodium and potassium (C) Aluminium and zinc (D) Silver and gold
Q241) Which of the following is a non-metal but lustrous? (A) Carbon (B) Sulphur (C) Iodine (D) Phosphorus
Q242) Which of these properties is generally not shown by non-metals? (A) Poor conduction of heat (B) Malleability (C) Brittleness (D) Dull appearance
Q243) Which metal reacts violently with cold water? (A) Zinc (B) Copper (C) Sodium (D) Iron
Q244) Which oxide is amphoteric in nature? (A) Copper oxide (B) Aluminium oxide (C) Sodium oxide (D) Calcium oxide
Q245) Which gas is evolved when metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid? (A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon dioxide
Q246) Which of the following metals does not react with cold or hot water but reacts with steam? (A) Copper (B) Lead (C) Iron (D) Potassium
Q247) What is the reactivity order of metals with dilute acids? (A) Mg > Zn > Al > Fe (B) Cu > Fe > Zn > Al (C) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe (D) Zn > Mg > Fe > Al
Q248) Which of the following metals is most reactive? (A) Iron (B) Copper (C) Potassium (D) Gold
Q249) What type of bond is formed between sodium and chlorine? (A) Covalent bond (B) Metallic bond (C) Ionic bond (D) Hydrogen bond
Q250) In a displacement reaction, which metal can displace copper from copper sulphate solution? (A) Silver (B) Gold (C) Iron (D) Mercury
Q251) What is the charge on a chloride ion after gaining an electron? (A) +1 (B) -1 (C) 0 (D) -2
Q252) Which of the following compounds has the highest melting point? (A) NaCl (B) LiCl (C) CaO (D) MgCl₂
Q253) What is the physical nature of ionic compounds? (A) Soft and ductile (B) Hard and brittle (C) Malleable (D) Shiny and smooth
Q254) Which method is used for extracting highly reactive metals? (A) Roasting (B) Calcination (C) Electrolysis (D) Distillation
Q255) What is the purpose of calcination in metal extraction? (A) To convert sulphides into oxides (B) To reduce oxides to metals (C) To convert carbonates into oxides (D) To purify metals
Q256) What is formed when iron is exposed to moist air for a long time? (A) Green layer (B) Silver tarnish (C) Rust (D) Basic copper carbonate
Q257) What is the role of carbon in the reduction of metal oxides? (A) Oxidizing agent (B) Reducing agent (C) Electrolyte (D) Catalyst
Q258) An alloy is a: (A) Pure metal (B) Non-metal (C) Homogeneous mixture of metals (D) Mixture of gases
Q259) Stainless steel is made by mixing iron with: (A) Copper and Tin (B) Carbon and Zinc (C) Nickel and Chromium (D) Silver and Gold
Q260) Brass is an alloy of: (A) Copper and Tin (B) Copper and Zinc (C) Iron and Zinc (D) Zinc and Tin
Q261) Amalgam is an alloy that contains: (A) Copper (B) Mercury (C) Silver (D) Lead
Q262) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a chemical reaction? (A) Change in state (B) Change in shape (C) Change in temperature (D) Evolution of gas
Q263) When magnesium ribbon burns, it forms: (A) Magnesium chloride (B) Magnesium oxide (C) Magnesium nitrate (D) Magnesium hydroxide
Q264) What is observed when zinc reacts with dilute sulphuric acid? (A) A white precipitate forms (B) Hydrogen gas is released (C) Temperature decreases (D) No visible change
Q265) The correct balanced chemical equation for Zn + H₂SO₄ is: (A) Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂ (B) Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnO + H₂ (C) Zn + H₂O → Zn(OH)₂ + H₂ (D) Zn + O₂ → ZnO
Q266) What is the final balanced equation for the reaction between iron and water? (A) 2Fe + 3H₂O → Fe₂O₃ + 3H₂ (B) 3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂ (C) Fe + H₂O → FeO + H₂ (D) 4Fe + 3H₂O → 2Fe₂O₃ + 3H₂
Q267) What type of reaction is represented by CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂? (A) Displacement (B) Combination (C) Decomposition (D) Double displacement
Q268) Which reaction is an example of thermal decomposition? (A) C + O₂ → CO₂ (B) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ (C) H₂ + Cl₂ → HCl (D) Zn + HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
Q269) In the reaction 2FeSO₄ → Fe₂O₃ + SO₂ + SO₃, the green crystals turn into: (A) Blue powder (B) Brown residue (C) White foam (D) Transparent liquid
Q270) Which gas is collected at the cathode during electrolysis of water? (A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Nitrogen
Q271) What is the color change observed when silver chloride is kept in sunlight? (A) White to yellow (B) White to grey (C) Grey to white (D) Blue to green
Q272) What kind of reaction is observed when iron is dipped in copper sulphate solution? (A) Combination (B) Double displacement (C) Displacement (D) Decomposition
Q273) Which of the following is a redox reaction? (A) CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O (B) AgCl → Ag + Cl₂ (C) Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + NaCl (D) Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu
Q274) What is rancidity? (A) Boiling of oil (B) Freezing of fat (C) Oxidation of fat and oil causing bad smell and taste (D) Heating of butter
Q275) What is added to food to prevent rancidity? (A) Salt (B) Antioxidants (C) Preservatives (D) Sugar
Q276) Which gas is used in food packets to prevent oxidation? (A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Hydrogen (D) Nitrogen
Q277) Which of the following is a natural indicator? (A) Phenolphthalein (B) Methyl orange (C) Turmeric (D) Sodium hydroxide
Q278) What happens when zinc reacts with dilute sulphuric acid? (A) Hydrogen gas is released (B) CO₂ is formed (C) A red precipitate forms (D) No reaction
Q279) What is the colour of litmus in a neutral solution? (A) Red (B) Blue (C) Purple (D) Yellow
Q280) Which of the following can act as an olfactory indicator? (A) Vinegar (B) Vanilla essence (C) Ammonia (D) Hydrochloric acid
Q281) What is formed when metal carbonates react with acids? (A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon dioxide
Q282) Which of the following ions is responsible for acidic nature in aqueous solution? (A) OH⁻ (B) H⁺ (C) Na⁺ (D) Cl⁻
Q283) What is the correct product of a neutralization reaction? (A) Acid + Water (B) Base + Hydrogen (C) Salt + Water (D) Gas + Base
Q284) Which of these reactions is exothermic in nature? (A) Acid reacting with base (B) Acid or base mixed with water (C) Salt reacting with water (D) Base reacting with metal
Q285) What happens when copper oxide reacts with hydrochloric acid? (A) Water is formed only (B) Acid remains unchanged (C) A blue-green solution forms (D) Hydrogen gas is evolved
Q286) Which substance has the lowest pH among the following? (A) Milk of magnesia (B) Lemon juice (C) Tap water (D) Baking soda
Q287) What is used to test the pH of soil? (A) Litmus paper (B) pH meter (C) Universal indicator (D) Thermometer
Q288) Which of the following is a mild base used as an antacid? (A) Sodium hydroxide (B) Potassium chloride (C) Magnesium hydroxide (D) Calcium hydroxide
Q289) Which acid is present in a nettle sting? (A) Citric acid (B) Oxalic acid (C) Methanoic acid (D) Acetic acid
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